Another revisionist history question that I am sure others have contemplated before but I personally just thought of it now:
What if Brazil managed to beat France in 1986 and made it to the final: would they have had a better chance to beat Argentina than Germany did?
Some background and interesting stats:
Interestingly, in terms in offence and defense, both teams had the same GD at 10. In fact, and it may not be obvious to some since that team was all about offence, but Brazil only allowed 1 goal in 5 games, which came against France in the QF. If I am not mistaken, I don't think Brazil has ever gone first 4 games without conceding a single goal. Compare that to Brazil in 1982 - a team most agree was better than 1986 - and the latter had scored 15 goals and allowed 6 goals, in the same number of games (5) as they did in 1986. So you can argue that the reset and rebuild after the 1982 collapse started in 1986 and not later in the 1990s?
What if Brazil managed to beat France in 1986 and made it to the final: would they have had a better chance to beat Argentina than Germany did?
Some background and interesting stats:
Interestingly, in terms in offence and defense, both teams had the same GD at 10. In fact, and it may not be obvious to some since that team was all about offence, but Brazil only allowed 1 goal in 5 games, which came against France in the QF. If I am not mistaken, I don't think Brazil has ever gone first 4 games without conceding a single goal. Compare that to Brazil in 1982 - a team most agree was better than 1986 - and the latter had scored 15 goals and allowed 6 goals, in the same number of games (5) as they did in 1986. So you can argue that the reset and rebuild after the 1982 collapse started in 1986 and not later in the 1990s?