The "ki/ke/ko" thing...

[Rumtaya]

Hey Guys I got a question.

I just got realized that within our diffrent asssyrian "dialects" we have this "Ki/Ke/Ko" thing within the one spoken in the nineveh plains, the tur abdin/geezarta region and urmia/salamas region, but not within former Hakkaraye.

The "Ki/Ke/Ko" thing example:

The one from Urmia/Salamas would say for "we say" = Ke Taneekh
in tur abdin/gazeera region it would be= Ko amrina
within the ninveh plain region ("kaldaya) = ke amrin (not sure with that)

However in the assyrian spoken by former hakkaraye(mostly tribesmen) we do not say or make use of this "Ke/Ki/Ko" thing. Is there any explanation for it? Would be cool if someone who got the knowledge about it could clearify it to me. Also is this an aramaic or akkadian thing.

thanks in regards

Rumtaya

 

[Knight]

Yeah, I say it as:

ke'mrin (I say) or Ke'mrokh (We say), or
Ke'bin (I want/I love) and Ke'bokh (We want/ We love)

but i have no idea where it comes from!

 

[jonadona]

I didn't realize there were so many Minshayeh on AVN.  Not bad for a small millet.

 

[Shamosho]

I would be interested in knowing this too.

One possibility is that it means "like" or "as" and so when added to a verb implies the ongoing tense. 

 

[Rumtaya]

Yeah, I say it as:

ke'mrin (I say) or Ke'mrokh (We say), or
Ke'bin (I want/I love) and Ke'bokh (We want/ We love)

but i have no idea where it comes from!

"Ke?bokh" in the western dialect is "Can you"
"Le?bokh" would be then "cant you"


So noone has a answer to this...damn!

There is the akkadian "ki", but i dont know if it is the same as the one used in our current language... or having the same meaning...

kī , akkī

as, like
kī kalbi like a dog ; kī ann? like this, as follows, in this way as soos as , when

http://www.premiumwanadoo.com/cuneiform.languages/dictionary/dosearch.php?searchkey=720&language=id

another version:

kī

1) like , how ? , as , according to , for (a price) , on account of [kī lā mek?] : without negligence [kī ?akān bilte] : by imposing a tribute 2) [MB] : [kī qāt / kī ?a] : instead of , in the stead of 3) (adverbe) : [NA] : how ? [personal name] - before precative - : How should I ... ? 4) [GIM] + subjonctive : [NB] : when 5) [NB] : conditional : if (before perfect, present) 6) (introducing an oath) : [kī unde??er] : if I abandon = I will not abandon 7) [kī ... kī] : whether ... or 8) [?a ' ālu kī] : to ask whether 9) [MB] : because, for 10) (after verbs of knowing, saying , swearing) : that 11 ) just as ( usually [kī ?a])

http://www.premiumwanadoo.com/cuneiform.languages/dictionary/dosearch.php?searchkey=5814&language=id

somethingelse....just founded it accidently...

this typ of "past" seems to be same as we use today

?arr-āta = shar eeta (aain taw alap)

?arr-āta is equivalent to: "you were king", "you are king" and "you will be king".

http://www.answers.com/topic/akkadian-language



anyone else here...loving to do some researchers on our current language and the ancient akkadian one?

 

[ISay]

Hey Guys I got a question.

I just got realized that within our diffrent asssyrian "dialects" we have this "Ki/Ke/Ko" thing within the one spoken in the nineveh plains, the tur abdin/geezarta region and urmia/salamas region, but not within former Hakkaraye.

The "Ki/Ke/Ko" thing example:

The one from Urmia/Salamas would say for "we say" = Ke Taneekh
in tur abdin/gazeera region it would be= Ko amrina
within the ninveh plain region ("kaldaya) = ke amrin (not sure with that)

However in the assyrian spoken by former hakkaraye(mostly tribesmen) we do not say or make use of this "Ke/Ki/Ko" thing. Is there any explanation for it? Would be cool if someone who got the knowledge about it could clearify it to me. Also is this an aramaic or akkadian thing.

thanks in regards

Rumtaya

There is another version of the "k" (and sometimes "g") particle used by eastern speakers very common today.  It is "ee".  An example would be "ee-parmeh" or "he understands".

Here is your grammar lesson for the day, Rumtaya.  These two particles are sometimes prefixed to verbs that are derived from the present.  These particles occur on verbs that express an indicative mood .

What does indicative mood mean, you ask?  I'm glad you asked.    For simplicity's sake, let me explain it by showing you how an indicative mood is different than the subjunctive mood in the following example.  "Waleh parmeh" or "he must understand" is an example of a verb that is in a subjunctive mood whereas "ee-parmeh" is in indicative mood.  You are stating a fact in indicative where in subjunctive you are stating a desire.  Notice how in the sentence "Waleh parmeh" I didn't make use of the "kee" or "ee" thing?

Basically, you don't use the "kee" or "ee" with a verb that doesn't state an action that is certain.

As far as being of Akkadian origin, well, I'm not fluent in Akkadian to form an opinion.  One linguist that I'm aware of has suggested that both particles are of Aramaic origin.